.
Is, just like most who defend the no-self doctrine, you seem to be quite choosy as to which part of my post you will address, which I think is not fair. I would rather prefer certain questions be answered, especially if repeated for a second time.
For the third time… I would like to know one essential thing… tell me, what exactly does the ‘mirage’ analogy actually point to? Does it mean that what an individual experiences as an individual, is all just like the mirage, including ones individuality?
You need to understand that it only appears to be that way.
And I don’t think I need to explain to you that all that there is, is appearances, but there is no "reality" other than that. Now keeping this in mind…
To the enlightened being there is no individual separate from life. There is only what happens.
For me too, but I’m not enlightened per say, so I don’t see two different individuals, for example Is and Sapius, as NOT two definably different individuals, in any imaginable “reality” removed from the one consciously experienced.
Yes, there is no individual separate from life but life cannot be without individuality (finite things) either, and that which happens is say only but appearances, but for which consciousness is absolutely necessary, for which an individual point of reference is necessary too, otherwise no-one will get “enlightened”; for example, you are enlightened and I am not.
Undoubtedly there is an appearance of an individual that can be outlined and differentiated, and this is true on a conventional level, but not in reality.
Firstly, how did you arrive at “undoubtedly”? (Your “I open the door and step into the same room day in and day out’ does not really prove that one day you might find no ground to step on, which is besides the point for now) Secondly, differentiation is a fundamental necessity for consciousness, and at any and absolutely all “levels” one can imagine, irrelevant of one assuming it an “appearance”. So talking about a level or realm of reality that does not include differentiations is absurd.
And again… which reality are you talking about here??? A reality that does not include the “conventional level”?
Try to find the actual edge of a cloud and see how well you fare.
Really? A Cloud? I don’t know what you are talking about, please define a cloud, and I will tell you if I recognise what you are talking about, and whether it has a definable edge or not.
You're pointing at it from the ground, eh? How about you go closer and closer? What about now?
You seem to have quite an arrogant confidence in this “cloud” thingy it seems. Well, it’s visibly defined edge would gradually become less and less defined due to the shortcoming of the kind of eyes I have, until I enter a mist and my clothes get wet, and when I reverse back it will gradually be visible and it might also rain. So? How about we take the example of a brick for a change?
Are you saying that if I take an instrument like the most advanced electron-microscope and focus onto the most smallest of quantum particle that make up my eyelash, that is supposed to prove that there is no boundary between my eyelash and the surrounding less dense air that I experience without the instrument? DIFFERENTIAION remain on any and all level of consciousness irrelevant of a micro or a macro world experienced, even your idea that there is no boundary between things fundamentally depends on a consciousness, which is further necessarily dependant on differentiations. Now you go and see how well you fare in a would without the differentiated, (without consciousness), and then come back and tell me about it my friend.
Have you heard about the two truths doctrine?
Yes I have, and I have my reservations and hence I’m kind of questioning it here, and you are helping explain it.
BTW, you did say “the enlightened being can see that the
'oasis' provides
no water, …”, so I was naturally confused.
What happens is that people mistake the relative truth (mirage) to be the ultimate truth (oasis), and this is what the mirage-analogy is trying to represent.
I understand, but I’m of the mind that there is nothing beyond the relative truth, and if anyone likes to take THAT as an ultimate truth, so be it, otherwise to me it is but a simple logical fact, and see no need to indulge in absolutism.
When people make that mistake, there is suffering.
Well, it seems all have their own interpretation of ‘sufferings’, and decide for others if they are indeed “suffering”. As far as I know… Gautama Buddha originally set out to understand and conqure old age, sickness and death, which seems to be what he considered as “sufferinngs”, (aka dukkha) and help others be free of it too, which of course he could not, and most probebly was enlightened to the fact that these are biological facts so ultimatly it is futile, so let me go and have some milk and stop starving myself to death! Now the only alternative left would have been to help remove mental anguesh resulting from unreasonable emotions, (which I would also help any fellow being to get rid of), and may have thought what better way than to have your cake and eat it too by pronouncing old age, sickness and death as “illusory”, but of course in a very different and deeply profound sense.
So I would like to know when and who was the first to misinterpret ‘dukkha’, which was actually aimed at old age, sickness and death, and replace it with “ignorance of (as in) NOT knowing the “true” nature of existence?
And compassionate beings attempt to remove that mistake from their mindstream. One way to do that is to use analogies, because they are things that ordinary beings can understand, even though the analogies are due to their dualistic nature always limited. But in the end, the analogies and the methods (the four noble truths, emptiness, two truths doctrine, etc) must all be let go for complete enlightenment to occur.
So are you completely enlightened?